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The author says: 'Similar to almost all Arab and Islamic countries, Bahrain offers women no protection from their sexually abusive husbands.'

Can she please clarify? Are these mutually exclusive terms? Does she mean Arabic countries with no Islamic influence? If so, can she identify which Arab countries are bereft of Islamic dominance? Or does she mean that Arabic culture, in and of itself, refuses to protect wives from abusive husbands? If so, she must mean that this was the situation prior to the rise of Islam, right?

Or does she actually mean this: to the same degree that Islam gains dominance in any society women’s protection from abusive husbands diminishes? This would also apply of course to non-Arab countries.

The rest of the article lays the blame for this loss of protection on Sharia courts which of course points directly, and without equivocation, to Islam.

The comment from ‘Female activist’ Afaf Al Jamri also points to Islam. But she wants to eliminate the hadith because the Qur'an and ‘its verses… are clear and can’t be misinterpreted.’ I find this a rather depressing statement and hardly one that I would think a real feminist/activist would espouse. I wonder how she would deal with Qur'an 4:34 where Allah permits husbands to ‘beat’ their wife/wives? And just what are these women in abusive relationships supposed to do until Muslims ditch the hadith and ‘focus exclusively on the Quran’? I hope this ‘activist’ does not tell them to hold their breath.